Source: RTP,June20225 Marks
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Question Scenario

A enters into a contract with B that he (A) sells his house for ` 10,00,000 to B. Further they both signed an agreement that if B uses the house for gambling purposes, then B shall pay A ` 50,000 for it. B agreed to this, however after a year of sale, B started gambling business in that house. Can A claim ` 50,000 from B? Discuss with reference to the provisions of Indian Contract Act, 1872.

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Suggested Answer

According to Section 24 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, in an agreement, where some part of the object is legal and the other part is illegal, the question arises about the validity and enforceability of such agreements. Where the legal and illegal part can be severed and divided, and separated, lawful part of object is enforceable, and the unlawful part of the object is void. In the given case, A sells the house to B, is a valid transaction as the sale of house and consideration paid for the same i.e. `10,00,000 is valid and enforceable. However, the agreement to pay ` 50,000 for gambling done in the house is illegal and thus void. Hence, in the instant case, sale of house agreement is valid agreement and gambling agreement is illegal and not enforceable by law.

Exam Strategy Tip

When answering law questions in the CA Foundation exam, follow the "Provision -> Facts -> Conclusion" structure for maximum marks. Ensure to state the relevant sections where applicable to earn bonus marks from the evaluator.

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