Central Tendency & DispersionPYQ July 21Question 3094 of 473
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The probable value of mean deviation when Q3=40\displaystyle Q_3 = 40 and Q1=15\displaystyle Q_1 = 15 is:

Options

A15
B18.75
C17.50
D0
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Correct Answer

✅ Option a — 15

All Options:

  • A15
  • B18.75
  • C17.50
  • D0

Detailed Solution & Explanation

We are given: - Third quartile: Q3=40\displaystyle Q_3 = 40 - First quartile: Q1=15\displaystyle Q_1 = 15 1. Calculate Quartile Deviation (Q.D.): Q.D.=Q3−Q12=40−152=12.5\text{Q.D.} = \frac{Q_3 - Q_1}{2} = \frac{40 - 15}{2} = 12.5 2. For a normal distribution, the relationship between Quartile Deviation (Q.D.) and Mean Deviation (M.D.) is: Q.D.≈56 M.D.  ⟹  M.D.≈65 Q.D.\text{Q.D.} \approx \frac{5}{6} \text{ M.D.} \implies \text{M.D.} \approx \frac{6}{5} \text{ Q.D.} 3. Calculate Mean Deviation: M.D.≈1.2×12.5=15\text{M.D.} \approx 1.2 \times 12.5 = 15 Hence, **Option A** is the correct answer.

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