Financial ManagementSubjectiveQuestion 5541 of 217
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Detailed Solution & Explanation
## Part (a): Cost of Capital — B Ltd.
**Total Capital:**
| Source | Amount (₹) | Weight |
|---|---|---|
| Equity Share Capital | 14,00,000 | 0.35 |
| Preference Share Capital | 10,00,000 | 0.25 |
| Debentures | 9,60,000 | 0.24 |
| Bank Loan | 6,40,000 | 0.16 |
| **Total** | **40,00,000** | **1.00** |
---
**(i) Cost of Equity (Ke) — CAPM**
\K_e = R_f + \\beta(R_m - R_f) \
\
---
**(ii) Cost of Preference Shares (YTM / IRR Method)**
Face Value = ₹1,000, Annual Dividend = 10% × 1,000 = ₹100, Redeemable at ₹1,065.40 after 3 years.
Current Market Price = ₹1,000 (assumed at par/issue price).
Calculate NPV at 10% and 14%:
| Year | Cash Flow (₹) | PVF @ 10% | PV @ 10% (₹) | PVF @ 14% | PV @ 14% (₹) |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 0 | (1,000) | 1 | (1,000) | 1 | (1,000) |
| 1–3 (Dividend) | 100 | 2.487 | 248.70 | 2.322 | 232.20 |
| 3 (Redemption) | 1,065.40 | 0.751 | 800.12 | 0.675 | 719.14 |
| **NPV** | | | **+48.82** | | **−48.66** |
\
\
**Cost of Preference Shares (Kp) = 12%**
---
**(iii) Post-Tax Cost of Debentures (Approximation Method)**
NP (Net Proceeds) = ₹100 − ₹4 (flotation) = ₹96; RV = ₹100; n = 5 years.
Let interest rate on debentures = X, so annual interest = 100X.
Interest on bank loan = 1.3X (pre-tax).
Using WACC = 14% to find X:
\\\text{Kd} = \\frac{I(1-t) + \\frac{RV - NP}{n}}{\\frac{RV + NP}{2}} = \\frac{100X(0.7) + \\frac{4}{5}}{\\frac{196}{2}} = \\frac{70X + 0.8}{98} \
\\\text{Kd(Bank Loan)} = 1.3X \\times (1 - 0.3) = 0.91X \
Setting up WACC equation:
\0.14 = 0.35(0.20) + 0.25(0.12) + 0.24 \\times \\frac{70X + 0.8}{98} + 0.16 \\times 0.91X \
\0.14 = 0.07 + 0.03 + \\frac{16.8X + 0.192}{98} + 0.1456X \
\0.04 = \\frac{16.8X + 0.192}{98} + 0.1456X \
\0.04 \\times 98 = 16.8X + 0.192 + 14.2688X \
\3.92 - 0.192 = 31.0688X \
\
So, interest rate on debentures = **12%**.
\K_d = \\frac{12(1 - 0.3) + \\frac{4}{5}}{\\frac{196}{2}} = \\frac{8.4 + 0.8}{98} = \\frac{9.2}{98} = \\boxed{9.39\\%} \
**Post-tax cost of debentures ≈ 9.39%**
---
**(iv) Interest Rate of Bank Loan**
\
---
## Part (b): Walter's Model — H Ltd.
**Given:** EPS (E) = ₹3, r = 20%, Ke = 15%
Since **r (20%) > Ke (15%)**, the firm is a **growth firm**. As per Walter's Model, value is maximised by retaining all earnings (D = 0) and minimised by distributing all earnings (D = E).
**Walter's Formula:**
\P = \\frac{D + \\frac{r}{K_e}(E - D)}{K_e} \
**(i) Maximum Price — when D = 0 (full retention):**
\P_{max} = \\frac{0 + \\frac{0.20}{0.15}(3 - 0)}{0.15} = \\frac{\\frac{0.20}{0.15} \\times 3}{0.15} = \\frac{4}{0.15} = \\boxed{₹26.67} \
**(ii) Minimum Price — when D = E = ₹3 (full distribution):**
\P_{min} = \\frac{3 + \\frac{0.20}{0.15}(3 - 3)}{0.15} = \\frac{3}{0.15} = \\boxed{₹20} \
**Maximum Price = ₹26.67 | Minimum Price = ₹20**
**Total Capital:**
| Source | Amount (₹) | Weight |
|---|---|---|
| Equity Share Capital | 14,00,000 | 0.35 |
| Preference Share Capital | 10,00,000 | 0.25 |
| Debentures | 9,60,000 | 0.24 |
| Bank Loan | 6,40,000 | 0.16 |
| **Total** | **40,00,000** | **1.00** |
---
**(i) Cost of Equity (Ke) — CAPM**
\K_e = R_f + \\beta(R_m - R_f) \
\
---
**(ii) Cost of Preference Shares (YTM / IRR Method)**
Face Value = ₹1,000, Annual Dividend = 10% × 1,000 = ₹100, Redeemable at ₹1,065.40 after 3 years.
Current Market Price = ₹1,000 (assumed at par/issue price).
Calculate NPV at 10% and 14%:
| Year | Cash Flow (₹) | PVF @ 10% | PV @ 10% (₹) | PVF @ 14% | PV @ 14% (₹) |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 0 | (1,000) | 1 | (1,000) | 1 | (1,000) |
| 1–3 (Dividend) | 100 | 2.487 | 248.70 | 2.322 | 232.20 |
| 3 (Redemption) | 1,065.40 | 0.751 | 800.12 | 0.675 | 719.14 |
| **NPV** | | | **+48.82** | | **−48.66** |
\
\
**Cost of Preference Shares (Kp) = 12%**
---
**(iii) Post-Tax Cost of Debentures (Approximation Method)**
NP (Net Proceeds) = ₹100 − ₹4 (flotation) = ₹96; RV = ₹100; n = 5 years.
Let interest rate on debentures = X, so annual interest = 100X.
Interest on bank loan = 1.3X (pre-tax).
Using WACC = 14% to find X:
\\\text{Kd} = \\frac{I(1-t) + \\frac{RV - NP}{n}}{\\frac{RV + NP}{2}} = \\frac{100X(0.7) + \\frac{4}{5}}{\\frac{196}{2}} = \\frac{70X + 0.8}{98} \
\\\text{Kd(Bank Loan)} = 1.3X \\times (1 - 0.3) = 0.91X \
Setting up WACC equation:
\0.14 = 0.35(0.20) + 0.25(0.12) + 0.24 \\times \\frac{70X + 0.8}{98} + 0.16 \\times 0.91X \
\0.14 = 0.07 + 0.03 + \\frac{16.8X + 0.192}{98} + 0.1456X \
\0.04 = \\frac{16.8X + 0.192}{98} + 0.1456X \
\0.04 \\times 98 = 16.8X + 0.192 + 14.2688X \
\3.92 - 0.192 = 31.0688X \
\
So, interest rate on debentures = **12%**.
\K_d = \\frac{12(1 - 0.3) + \\frac{4}{5}}{\\frac{196}{2}} = \\frac{8.4 + 0.8}{98} = \\frac{9.2}{98} = \\boxed{9.39\\%} \
**Post-tax cost of debentures ≈ 9.39%**
---
**(iv) Interest Rate of Bank Loan**
\
---
## Part (b): Walter's Model — H Ltd.
**Given:** EPS (E) = ₹3, r = 20%, Ke = 15%
Since **r (20%) > Ke (15%)**, the firm is a **growth firm**. As per Walter's Model, value is maximised by retaining all earnings (D = 0) and minimised by distributing all earnings (D = E).
**Walter's Formula:**
\P = \\frac{D + \\frac{r}{K_e}(E - D)}{K_e} \
**(i) Maximum Price — when D = 0 (full retention):**
\P_{max} = \\frac{0 + \\frac{0.20}{0.15}(3 - 0)}{0.15} = \\frac{\\frac{0.20}{0.15} \\times 3}{0.15} = \\frac{4}{0.15} = \\boxed{₹26.67} \
**(ii) Minimum Price — when D = E = ₹3 (full distribution):**
\P_{min} = \\frac{3 + \\frac{0.20}{0.15}(3 - 3)}{0.15} = \\frac{3}{0.15} = \\boxed{₹20} \
**Maximum Price = ₹26.67 | Minimum Price = ₹20**
Key Concepts to Understand
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