Advanced AccountingQuestion 5282 of 305
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3. 12% Convertible Debentures Increase in net profit {` 30,00,000 x 0.12 x ( 1 - 0.30)} ` 2,52,000 No. of incremental shares {30,000 x 4} 1,20,000 (

Options

A
BComputation of annual lease payment: Particulars ` Cost of equipment 12,50,000.00 Unguaranteed residual value 1,20,000.00 Present value of unguaranteed residual value (` 1,20,000 x 0.735) 88,200.00 Present value of lease payments (` 12,50,000 -` 88,200) 11,61,800.00 Present value of annuity for four years is 3.312 Annual lease payment [11,61,800/3.312] 3,50,785.02 Classification of lease: Parameter 1: The present value of the lease payment i.e. ` 11,61,800 which equals 92.94% of the fair market value i.e. ` 12,50,000. The present value of minimum lease payments substantially covers the fair value of the leased asset. Parameter 2: The lease term (i.e. 4 years) covers the major part of the life of asset (i.e. 6 years). Therefore, it constitutes a finance lease. Computation of Unearned Finance Income: Particulars ` Total lease payments (Rs 3,50,785.02 x 4) 14,03,140.08 Add: Unguaranteed residual value 1,20,000.00 Gross investment in the lease 15,23,140.08 Less: Present value of lease payments and residual value i.e. Net Investment (` 88,200 + ` 11,61,800) (12,50,000.00) Unearned finance income 2,73,140.08 (
CDifference between Defined Contribution Plan and Defined Benefit Plan: S No. Defined Contribution Plan Defined Benefit Plan 1 Fixed Contributions are paid by the employer into a separate fund and will have no obligation to pay further contributions. Detailed actuarial calculation is performed to determine the charge. 2 The employer has no obligation to pay further contributions if the fund does not hold sufficient assets to pay all employee benefits and the employee has to bear the investment and actuarial risk. The employer ensures that sufficient funds are available to meet the promised benefits regardless of fund performance and the actuarial and investment risk fall on the employer. ADVANCED ACCOUNTING Computation of defined benefit liability /Asset: Particulars ` in lakhs Present value of the defined benefit obligation as on 31.3.2024 36.00 Less: Past service cost not yet recognized (7.50) 28.50 Less: The fair value of plan assets (38.50) Defined benefit Asset 10.00 In case where fair value of plan assets is high, it may so happen that the net amount under defined benefit liability turns negative (giving rise to net assets). As per AS 15 the enterprise, in such a situation, should measure the resulting asset at the lower of: (i) the amount so determined, i.e. ` 10 lakh; and (ii) the present value of available future refunds from the plan i.e. ` 6 lakh. Therefore, defined benefit asset will be recognised at ` 6 lakhs.
D
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Correct Answer

Option ACorrect Option

All Options:

  • A
  • BComputation of annual lease payment: Particulars ` Cost of equipment 12,50,000.00 Unguaranteed residual value 1,20,000.00 Present value of unguaranteed residual value (` 1,20,000 x 0.735) 88,200.00 Present value of lease payments (` 12,50,000 -` 88,200) 11,61,800.00 Present value of annuity for four years is 3.312 Annual lease payment [11,61,800/3.312] 3,50,785.02 Classification of lease: Parameter 1: The present value of the lease payment i.e. ` 11,61,800 which equals 92.94% of the fair market value i.e. ` 12,50,000. The present value of minimum lease payments substantially covers the fair value of the leased asset. Parameter 2: The lease term (i.e. 4 years) covers the major part of the life of asset (i.e. 6 years). Therefore, it constitutes a finance lease. Computation of Unearned Finance Income: Particulars ` Total lease payments (Rs 3,50,785.02 x 4) 14,03,140.08 Add: Unguaranteed residual value 1,20,000.00 Gross investment in the lease 15,23,140.08 Less: Present value of lease payments and residual value i.e. Net Investment (` 88,200 + ` 11,61,800) (12,50,000.00) Unearned finance income 2,73,140.08 (
  • CDifference between Defined Contribution Plan and Defined Benefit Plan: S No. Defined Contribution Plan Defined Benefit Plan 1 Fixed Contributions are paid by the employer into a separate fund and will have no obligation to pay further contributions. Detailed actuarial calculation is performed to determine the charge. 2 The employer has no obligation to pay further contributions if the fund does not hold sufficient assets to pay all employee benefits and the employee has to bear the investment and actuarial risk. The employer ensures that sufficient funds are available to meet the promised benefits regardless of fund performance and the actuarial and investment risk fall on the employer. ADVANCED ACCOUNTING Computation of defined benefit liability /Asset: Particulars ` in lakhs Present value of the defined benefit obligation as on 31.3.2024 36.00 Less: Past service cost not yet recognized (7.50) 28.50 Less: The fair value of plan assets (38.50) Defined benefit Asset 10.00 In case where fair value of plan assets is high, it may so happen that the net amount under defined benefit liability turns negative (giving rise to net assets). As per AS 15 the enterprise, in such a situation, should measure the resulting asset at the lower of: (i) the amount so determined, i.e. ` 10 lakh; and (ii) the present value of available future refunds from the plan i.e. ` 6 lakh. Therefore, defined benefit asset will be recognised at ` 6 lakhs.
  • D

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Detailed Solution & Explanation

This question is a parsed fragment from the Suggested Answer of the examination. It presents calculations relating to the accounting treatment of convertible debentures, lease payments, employee benefits, or financial statement items under AS 20, AS 19, AS 15, and Schedule III. Based on the parsed data and structural context in the suggested answers, Option A is the correct answer.
Hence, **Option A** is the correct answer.

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